How am I supposed to take you seriously when you use Hitler as an example?
Unfortunately me mentioning something does not make you right.Quote
There is certainly a correlation with the expansion of the money supply and the rise of the middle class and the industrial age.
It is not definitive causation, no, but it is a significant correlation and can't be simply swept aside. And why does fiat need to be thrown into the mix? There was no fiat, this is gold-backed currency we're talking about here.
Just as there is a correlation between the expansion of debt and a billion other things. Its a null argument and NOT significant.It is not definitive causation, no, but it is a significant correlation and can't be simply swept aside. And why does fiat need to be thrown into the mix? There was no fiat, this is gold-backed currency we're talking about here.
Why is a correlation "significant" when its over a 300 year time period where there could be a million other explanations?
Fiat is equal to debt, its a piece of paper with a promise = debt.
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I believe the industrial age was the cause for easy credit NOT the other way around.
Good for you. It doesn't really make sense that productivity increased then the money supply magically increased as an effect, but believe what you want.1. Increase in goods.
2. Increase in productivity.
3. More credit is created, but due to more goods you don't get hyper inflation.
3. Due to increased productivity more ventures are successful and people as result more readily give loans.
This is the reverse:
1. More credit is created.
2. More businesses get funded and products bought.
3. However productivity can not increase drastically in short time and supply falls short.
4. More businesses can sell, but their costs quickly go up as well due to resource/productivity constraints.
5. Hyper inflation or debt liquidation occurs.
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Keep in mind that money comes AFTER goods.
No, it doesn't. New money is not created because there is new productivity. It creates more demand for money, sure, and banks took advantage by using FRB. If they hadn't, all sorts of new production would have likely been halted due to lack of investment.What matters is not the money investment, but what fraction of ALL humans work on something productive. More money will not necessarily change this "productive fraction/percentage" in the right direction.
However with an increase in productivity due to tech or simply more humans you can have more money without inflation. Hence money creation FOLLOWS production.
If you really believe money creates wealth then why isn't every government printing like crazy with everyone living in utopia? Because your theory is WRONG.
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To say the industrial age started the second debt came is wrong as debt existed before - it is even in several bible stories if I'm not mistaken.
But that's not what I said, so why make this argument.Quote
Wait, so you're saying the greatest empire in human history didn't work well? Damn, you need a history lesson son.
No you do, they failed once they tried to create money to solve their problems. YOUR EXACT PROPOSAL!Quote
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If debt = expansion/progress why is it not working now?
Again you are putting words in my mouth. Abels claimed that "100 years ago" businesses and people saved up before they did something, which, as a rule, is patently untrue.Quote
"The over-production/consumption that exists today is most likely due to the fact that our governments are in serious debt and the citizens are forced to repay this ridiculous, fictitious debt in the form of taxes or cut social services or what have you. So even though we are so productive, we have to continue to work ourselves literally to death so that the wealthy can eek out more profits."
That only explains the crisis in US and other authoritarian regimes. Why is the rest of the world having a financial crisis? Why is China slowing down?They invest and invest and invest.
You are basically correct that the crisis is caused by bad investments and by an exploiting elite.
These bad investments cause productivity to fall (Iraq etc.).
With less productivity, ventures fail and banks fail - debt contracts.
Now if you were correct in money/debt/fiat expansion creating ANYTHING, then WHY is the order in reverse? Why are we seeing productivity drops from an idiot consumerist society and THEN money contraction?
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Now there's no guarantee that this is correct, but this is economics where nobody really knows anything for sure. What we do know for sure is that your opinion is just an opinion, and so is mine..
I just pointed to evidence of CAUSATION.The best you have is vagueness of when debt is good/bad and MAYBE some correlation the last 300 years - you haven't even established when you think this expansion began and when the money expansion began - I can date my data:
?-1990 productivity steadily rises along with money supply. ~1990-2007 all is pretty good with money markets, but the market is obviously wasting human effort and resources on too big houses, hummers and wars while paying no heed to resource depletion or climate change - a contraction of productivity.
THEN in 2008 money markets crash and have been since.
Again: WHY is the order the reverse if money comes before trade?
Please explain that. Then tell me where my theory doesn't match up with reality just ONCE. Just point out one measly example of where more productivity lead to less money/debt in the world total and I throw away my theory.
Also please agree with the statements in bold or I will consider you an economist/troll and ignore you.