Hi,
I have what is probably a pretty dumb newbie question about 51% attacks. I'll lay out my thinking and maybe someone will be good enough to point out where I'm going wrong.
It says in the original Nakamoto paper that
The longest chain not only serves as proof of the sequence of events witnessed, but proof that it came from the largest pool of CPU power
and that
The majority decision is represented by the longest chain, which has the greatest proof-of-work effort invested in it. If a majority of CPU power is controlled by honest nodes, the honest chain will grow the fastest and outpace any competing chains.
OK, so I understand that to mean that if a node is presented with two alternative chains then it accepts the longer one as the valid one, as decided by the majority. (And if both chains are the same length, i.e. the competition ends in a draw (a tie), then the node accepts the first chain to arrive, but retains the other chain in case it becomes the longer chain at the next iteration).
So my question is this:
- When 2 chains are competing for acceptance, why does Bitcoin select the longer chain
even if it's only a little tiny bit longer?
The consequence of accepting the chain that's longer - even if only by the smallest possible amount - is that the amount of mining power necessary to reliably compromise the network is just over 50%.
Whereas if the winning chain had to be a minimum of
n% longer - e.g. if the winning chain had to be more than 5% longer than the competitor chain - then the proportion of mining power necessary to compromise the chain would be larger than 50% (potentially much larger, depending on the value of
n). This would be a Good Thing.
One consequence of demanding that in order to 'win', a chain must be at least n% longer, is that you'd potentially have more ties (i.e. situations where neither chain is
n% longer than the other one). But as Bitcoin has a tie-break mechanism built-in, I can't really see why that's a problem.
So I'm wondering why it doesn't work that way. There's probably an obvious answer that I'm missing - I'd be grateful if someone would (gently, I'm a newbie) point me to it. Thanks.
In other words:
why demand a simple 50%+ majority rather than a 55% or 60% supermajority?