Gambler's fallacy, what do you think?

[Minnlo]

Well Gambler's Fallacy is derived from the law of large numbers. Of course if you flip a coin 10,000 times with all heads, the next flip is still a 50/50 but the odds of that happening are really low.

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That would be the chances of getting 10.000 heads in a row if im not mistaken

That is definitely not right. The odds of getting 10 heads in a row is 0.09% . And not the figure you have posted.

Who is talking about 10 heads? I said 10.000 bets, 10 thousand in a row

The confusion is caused by your "10.000".
Part of the world is using a comma as thousand separator, and another part of the world is using a dot.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Decimal_mark#Examples_of_use

[SyGambler]

yeah i thinks it exists

[GannickusX]

Well Gambler's Fallacy is derived from the law of large numbers. Of course if you flip a coin 10,000 times with all heads, the next flip is still a 50/50 but the odds of that happening are really low.

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That would be the chances of getting 10.000 heads in a row if im not mistaken

That is definitely not right. The odds of getting 10 heads in a row is 0.09% . And not the figure you have posted.

Who is talking about 10 heads? I said 10.000 bets, 10 thousand in a row

The confusion is caused by your "10.000".
Part of the world is using a comma as thousand separator, and another part of the world is using a dot.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Decimal_mark#Examples_of_use

I would understand the confusion if it was 10.00 but it has 3 zeros .000 why would anyone use 3 zeros as a decimal?

[ndnh]

lol, had already answered all those yesterday.

Well Gambler's Fallacy is derived from the law of large numbers. Of course if you flip a coin 10,000 times with all heads, the next flip is still a 50/50 but the odds of that happening are really low.

--snip--


That would be the chances of getting 10.000 heads in a row if im not mistaken

That is definitely not right. The odds of getting 10 heads in a row is 0.09% . And not the figure you have posted.

Any questions?

(If you are confusing '.' and ',' read : http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Decimal_mark#Countries_using_Arabic_numerals_with_decimal_point
Easy way to identify is if there are 3 zeroes, it is thousands and not a decimal point usually.)

[GannickusX]

lol, had already answered all those yesterday.

Well Gambler's Fallacy is derived from the law of large numbers. Of course if you flip a coin 10,000 times with all heads, the next flip is still a 50/50 but the odds of that happening are really low.

--snip--


That would be the chances of getting 10.000 heads in a row if im not mistaken

That is definitely not right. The odds of getting 10 heads in a row is 0.09% . And not the figure you have posted.

Any questions?

(If you are confusing '.' and ',' read : http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Decimal_mark#Countries_using_Arabic_numerals_with_decimal_point
Easy way to identify is if there are 3 zeroes, it is thousands and not a decimal point usually.)

Yep thats what i said and it was obvious i was talking about 10 thousand since the probability for it is almost impossible and anyways no one would be able to survive more than 50 heads in a row unless he was betting static bets but i dont see why would anyone do that

[Ingatqhvq]

Well Gambler's Fallacy is derived from the law of large numbers. Of course if you flip a coin 10,000 times with all heads, the next flip is still a 50/50 but the odds of that happening are really low.

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That would be the chances of getting 10.000 heads in a row if im not mistaken

How much zero do you write?
But the chance is really low, it's almost can be written 0.

[GannickusX]

Well Gambler's Fallacy is derived from the law of large numbers. Of course if you flip a coin 10,000 times with all heads, the next flip is still a 50/50 but the odds of that happening are really low.

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That would be the chances of getting 10.000 heads in a row if im not mistaken

How much zero do you write?
But the chance is really low, it's almost can be written 0.

Well if i remember correctly around 3.000 zeros, it was an aproximation probably it needs some more zeros

[ndnh]

Googled it.

[GannickusX]

Googled it.

yeah because you cant use those scientific calculators to calculate a number with so many zeros what i did and i dont know if it was correct was, 0.5 ^ 10 is 3 zeros, 0.5^ 100 is 30 zeros so i asumed that 0.5 ^ 10.000 was 3000 zeros

[Dannie]

Googled it.

yeah because you cant use those scientific calculators to calculate a number with so many zeros what i did and i dont know if it was correct was, 0.5 ^ 10 is 3 zeros, 0.5^ 100 is 30 zeros so i asumed that 0.5 ^ 10.000 was 3000 zeros

You are almost correct there.
There should be 3010 zeros after the decimal point as 0.5^10000 = 5.01237274920645200929755593374297774932156778133842583 × 10^-3011
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=0.5^10000

[GannickusX]

Googled it.

yeah because you cant use those scientific calculators to calculate a number with so many zeros what i did and i dont know if it was correct was, 0.5 ^ 10 is 3 zeros, 0.5^ 100 is 30 zeros so i asumed that 0.5 ^ 10.000 was 3000 zeros

You are almost correct there.
There should be 3010 zeros after the decimal point as 0.5^10000 = 5.01237274920645200929755593374297774932156778133842583 × 10^-3011
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=0.5^10000

Oh nice i didnt know about that site, yeah i knew there must have been some more zeros i just didnt know how many thanks for the info tho.

[sherbyspark]

The concept is pretty confusing actually. If you consider the odds of 11th Head after 10 heads, then its 50% , however if you consider the odds of 10 simultaneous heads, then thats very less , and the odds of 11 heads is lower, and so on.
So overall the gamblers fallacy isn't true but a tails to happen soon does increase by a bit according to me.

[kotwica666]

Theory is theory.. In practice there always is % House Edge so website owner (casino owner) is taking his part and in this way there never is 50%

[GannickusX]

The concept is pretty confusing actually. If you consider the odds of 11th Head after 10 heads, then its 50% , however if you consider the odds of 10 simultaneous heads, then thats very less , and the odds of 11 heads is lower, and so on.
So overall the gamblers fallacy isn't true but a tails to happen soon does increase by a bit according to me.

Wrong. in 3 bets you have this possibilities:

HEADS HEADS HEADS
HEADS HEADS TAILS
HEADS TAILS HEADS
HEADS TAILS TAILS
TAILS TAILS TAILS
TAILS TAILS HEADS
TAILS HEADS TAILS
TAILS HEADS HEADS

12.5% chance of each of them

If you get 2 heads in a row then this is what is left

(HEADS HEADS) HEADS

(HEADS HEADS) TAILS

50% EACH

[Slark]

If something has a 50% chance of happening, it has a 50% chance of happening, what has happened beforehand makes no difference.

From the mathematical point of view it is completely true. Yet people are not "mathematical" creatures they tend to have flawed logic of things. From my experience my and my friends noticed that we are all biased by gambler's fallacy. The best example here is slots, I lost too much money thinking that 'this time would be different' during the game.

[duckydonald]

I beleive in ebating the casion yo will need its bankroll plus another 35 percent more funds, to truly beat the house.

You would only beat the casino if it had no max bet but pretty much all the casinos do have a max bet

Yes that too.

[Phildo]

The concept is pretty confusing actually. If you consider the odds of 11th Head after 10 heads, then its 50% , however if you consider the odds of 10 simultaneous heads, then thats very less , and the odds of 11 heads is lower, and so on.
So overall the gamblers fallacy isn't true but a tails to happen soon does increase by a bit according to me.

You don't care about the odds of throwing 11 heads in a row, after you already did 10. There is only 1 left to throw so it is 50/50.

The odds of throwing 11 heads in a row is (1/2)^11. That's the same as ((1/2)^10) * (1/2). The bold is throwing the first 10, AFTER you've thrown 10 heads in a row the odds of throwing 11 in a row are 50/50.

[sherbyspark]

The concept is pretty confusing actually. If you consider the odds of 11th Head after 10 heads, then its 50% , however if you consider the odds of 10 simultaneous heads, then thats very less , and the odds of 11 heads is lower, and so on.
So overall the gamblers fallacy isn't true but a tails to happen soon does increase by a bit according to me.

You don't care about the odds of throwing 11 heads in a row, after you already did 10. There is only 1 left to throw so it is 50/50.

The odds of throwing 11 heads in a row is (1/2)^11. That's the same as ((1/2)^10) * (1/2). The bold is throwing the first 10, AFTER you've thrown 10 heads in a row the odds of throwing 11 in a row are 50/50.

Yes thats true, but what I mean was say the odds of throwing the first 10 in a row is very low,  then the odds of throwing 11 heads is even lower and hence chance of tails coming up to satisfy the natural existing probability  of 50-50 should increase.

[Phildo]

The concept is pretty confusing actually. If you consider the odds of 11th Head after 10 heads, then its 50% , however if you consider the odds of 10 simultaneous heads, then thats very less , and the odds of 11 heads is lower, and so on.
So overall the gamblers fallacy isn't true but a tails to happen soon does increase by a bit according to me.

You don't care about the odds of throwing 11 heads in a row, after you already did 10. There is only 1 left to throw so it is 50/50.

The odds of throwing 11 heads in a row is (1/2)^11. That's the same as ((1/2)^10) * (1/2). The bold is throwing the first 10, AFTER you've thrown 10 heads in a row the odds of throwing 11 in a row are 50/50.

Yes thats true, but what I mean was say the odds of throwing the first 10 in a row is very low,  then the odds of throwing 11 heads is even lower and hence chance of tails coming up to satisfy the natural existing probability  of 50-50 should increase.

It doesn't. The odds of throwing the 11th are 50/50. To satisfy getting to 50/50 overall you just need to keep flipping the coin and getting 50% heads, look for my post earlier in this thread where I break it down.

[ndnh]

If something has a 50% chance of happening, it has a 50% chance of happening, what has happened beforehand makes no difference.

Wrong! (I love to debate)

There is 50% chance that A will get a tail. A died. The chance is 0%.  
Or the site you were betting went down..

Now, who is talking for?