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September 18, 2017, 11:40:47 PM |
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Is it correctly understood, that the transaction creator (A sends money to B) A, addresses the transaction to the hash of B's public key? In order for B to redeem this transaction later, he has to proof that his public key hashes to the same hash, as A addressed the value to. And by this and the "sig", B redeems the right to the value, previously addressed to him/her.
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