So, what do you think about the idea that the "effective bankroll" is not what is displayed on the JD website, but is actually a greater number due to the "sideline" money that would come in should the JD bankroll become depleted?
This was my argument for why it may make sense to have a max bet % greater than 1% of the funds physically held by JD.
I don't know if you can make assumptions about that money. We don't know what would happen if funds became depleted. A reasonable assumption of what sideline investors would do if investment drops 30% might not be the same as if investment drops 99%. My point is it's non-linear. I like Doog's fraction reserve/investment thing because it makes it explicit.
I just wanted to give you a heads up that making a default 2% max profit sets you in high-variance no-expected investment growth territory, and that's scary shit!
OK, I think it we are on the same page, just differing on semantics.
- I am saying that the "effective bankroll" = what is actually deposited + the sideline cash ready to jump in.
-You are saying that the "actual bankroll" = what is actually deposited + what has been pledged but held offsite.
We are both applying the Kelly criteria to the same thing and that thing is the sum of what JD holds and what is sitting off site ready to be transfered to JD should the need or opportunity present itself.
And I think this proves again that the % max bet *must* by greater than 1% of what is actually deposited at JD in order to maximize earnings.