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Author Topic: Let me know if my equation is correct please!  (Read 789 times)
tuckerlee
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September 18, 2011, 08:44:10 PM
 #1

Alright so
X= Original Purchase Price
Y= Current Price
X-(fee%)1.2+Y=gain%
Couldn't you use this with say, $100 initial and small investments adjusted by fee% to achieve the gain you want. If i'm correct the faster you want a payout the smaller it will be, then you repeat with the same X and you would have 0% loss with an adjustable gain. Let me know what you think.

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PatrickHarnett
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September 18, 2011, 08:48:50 PM
 #2

wouldn't you want something like  [Y / (X * (1 + fee%))] -1 = gain%
tuckerlee
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September 18, 2011, 09:03:26 PM
 #3

Could you explain your work please? Im getting a gain of 1.26% at 0.03 fee? (X=4.9, Y=5.12), which would work but I'm not seeing how it would effect outcome differently.

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September 18, 2011, 09:22:32 PM
 #4

 (5.12 / (4.9 *(1+0.03))) -1 = 1.45%

current price = 5.12
buy price = 4.9 *(1+0.03) = 5.05
difference is 0.07 or 1.45%

Of course, if you are paying 3% of the sale price, then 5.12 * (1- 0.03) = 4.966 received and there is a loss of 1.6%  (4.966 / 5/05).
tuckerlee
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September 19, 2011, 06:40:49 AM
 #5

I hate to ask but how did you get the percentage from 0.07/ Last question, I swear ha

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September 19, 2011, 07:36:57 PM
 #6

it's rounding
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