According to my understanding of international law, the use of force against another state is prohibited except in very specific situations. For this reason, the events in Venezuela are legitimate because the US and Venezuela have long maintained close diplomatic and economic ties as significant oil trading partners. They will undoubtedly take action to safeguard their interests, particularly if regard to oil.
That doesn't make any sense. You say that use of force against an other nation is prohibited, spare some exceptions. And you don't enumerate those exceptions. Than you go on to say that aggression against Venuzuela was legitimate because of those exceptions you haven't named.
So what are those exceptions? Asking for a friend....
