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September 21, 2024, 08:57:01 AM Merited by LoyceV (4), ABCbits (2) |
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Hi everyone,
I need help understanding the primitive block to initiating a state channel. To make it simple, let assume this is a one-way channel: buyer at one end (that is Alice), seller at the other (that is Bob). In the literature, I read that Alice, in order to initiate the channel, needs to first sign a transaction to a 2-2 multisig address (her and Bob). This sounds already like an issue to me. Why on earth one would feel comfortable to lose full control over his fund to a stranger? Then I read (Mastering Bitcoin) that Alice would first sign the refund transaction before committing the funding one and ask Bob to sign it and send it back to her. Having that refund transaction in her possession, that she will keep unbroadcast as long as Bob is acting fairly, she will feel comfortable signing and broadcasting the 2-2 multisig (her and Bob) funding transaction. That makes sense to me.
The question I have is: how can the refund transaction can even be crafted (nor signed) since its input should be the output of the funding transaction, which doesn't exist yet at that time?
Thanks a lot!
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