I looked into the source this wikipedia article has for calling stablecoins M2 and I don't think that this is exactly what the article linked as a source is trying to say.
I found a better article:
https://medium.com/@rendarax/to-classify-stablecoins-based-on-the-monetary-aggregates-m0-mn-described-previously-we-need-to-ba8796491115The author basically says that stablecoins could either be M1 (because they are used for payments like checking accounts) or M2 (because of their backing and their usage as store of value like savings accounts).
Interesting quotes from that article:
Conclusion: Stablecoins are not officially part of M1 in most jurisdictions because they are not regulated as bank deposits. However, in practice, they function similarly to M1 for users who treat them as transaction-ready money (e.g., in crypto trading or payments).[...]
Stablecoins are not officially part of M2 but have characteristics that align closely with M2 components like savings deposits or money market funds.
There seems to be one regulatory development that puts some stablecoins already close to inclusion into M1: E-Money tokens according to the EU MiCa Regulation. These coins (USDC for example) are classified as e-money, the same like PayPal USD for example. And thus one can deduct that these coins could be (once MiCa begins to fully be applied) be classified "officially" as part of M1. But stablecoins not regulated by MiCa (like Tether) would not be included.
But if I were to approach what constitutes M2 and M1 aside of the more traditional examples I'd look at usage instead of mere classification. Legally speaking it might be a little shaky to claim that stablecoins are legal tender. But there are improving regulatory frameworks that recognize their usage for payments. And functionally speaking stablecoins can substitute cash too.
Yes they are used for payments just like bank money (debit cards) but cash is another category. I don't see any reason to classify them into M0.
I think the big difference is that there is a slightly different risk profile: M1 funds can still become illiquid if a big bank gets bankrupt (and big accounts falling out of the insurance, i.e. >~100k USD/EUR would then lose some money). This can also happen to stablecoin issuers, but not with cash.
Banks will have a cost of opportunity in using their liquid cash reserves on a 1:1 basis for stablecoin issuance. I'm just thinking they'll probably utilize stablecoins for further commodification of their bond holdings.
Agree here. Another possible benefit for a bank to issue an own stablecoin is possibly to prevent payment solutions to change to non-bank stablecoins. However I don't really see a problem there. I think banks will probably try to find an equilibrium between the benefits of "commodification" of their bond holdings, and the need to maximize income by loans.
It also “destabilise” banks as well, as issuing stablecoins doesn’t allow the bank to issue more credit, perpetrating the loop.
Yes, that's the opportunity cost problem alani123 mentioned too. I think still this would stabilize them more, because if they can benefit in some way from their stablecoin issuance (e.g. commodifying bond holdings which yield earnings), they don't need that much income via risky loans. As far as I understand it, it's basically a tradeoff between a slower but stable growth or a more risky, steeper growth.