(oYo)
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October 16, 2014, 12:29:27 AM |
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I got an easy one for you...
If you're driving in a canoe and the wheels fall off, how many pieces of pizza can you eat?
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BADecker
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Activity: 3976
Merit: 1382
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October 16, 2014, 12:35:51 AM |
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Consider these mathematical laws:
1) Any real number, when divided by zero, produces modulus and quotient zero.
2) Any real number multiplied by zero is equal to zero.
Therefore, it logically follows, that zero divided by zero is equal to zero.
Premise 1 is false, it presupposes you can divide by zero, this operation is undefined. The division algorithm states a=bq + r, where b|a (b divides a), The set of R/0 is not closed under division, or the multiplication inverse. R/0 is an indeterminate form. It is undefined. A limiting process can be applied to an indeterminate form, but remember the episilon-delta proof, the limit never actually gets to zero, only "as close as we like" The whole process shoudl be restricted to integers anyway to eliminate irrational numbers in the real set. Right! If you divide something by 0, that's the same as dividing it by nothing. If something isn't divided, the thing that is left is the original something, right? Therefore, 2/0=2. Arithmatical division is both the taking and making of groups. An arithmatical quotient is that number of groups made or taken. ∴ That number of groups of nothing one can take and make from any something is absolute - indeed, that exact opposite of nothing, "−0." Oh, play the mathematical BS. This is the exact reason stuff is so confounded. Take 10 Arabs in the desert. Divide their number by 2 and you get 2 groups of 5, right. Since "0" is nothing, divide them by nothing and they are not divide, right? So, there are still 10 Arabs, right? English has its characteristic laws that don't make any sense. Mathematics is a language that has characteristic laws that don't make any sense as well. It's the reason that we have flaws in our thinking. With five Arab individuals, one may "make/take" −0 non-existent (think: null) groups of these (indeed, these would already "exist"). Look, -0 is absence of zero. So, what exactly is the amount of non-zero?
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BADecker
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Activity: 3976
Merit: 1382
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October 16, 2014, 12:45:52 AM |
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Consider these mathematical laws:
1) Any real number, when divided by zero, produces modulus and quotient zero.
2) Any real number multiplied by zero is equal to zero.
Therefore, it logically follows, that zero divided by zero is equal to zero.
Premise 1 is false, it presupposes you can divide by zero, this operation is undefined. The division algorithm states a=bq + r, where b|a (b divides a), The set of R/0 is not closed under division, or the multiplication inverse. R/0 is an indeterminate form. It is undefined. A limiting process can be applied to an indeterminate form, but remember the episilon-delta proof, the limit never actually gets to zero, only "as close as we like" The whole process shoudl be restricted to integers anyway to eliminate irrational numbers in the real set. Right! If you divide something by 0, that's the same as dividing it by nothing. If something isn't divided, the thing that is left is the original something, right? Therefore, 2/0=2. Arithmatical division is both the taking and making of groups. An arithmatical quotient is that number of groups made or taken as a result of that division. ∴ That arithmatical quotient of arithmatical division by zero ( id est, that number of groups of, quantitatively, nothing one can take/make from any something) is absolute (indeed, that exact opposite [logical not] of quantitative nothing, "−0"). Oh, play the mathematical BS. This is the exact reason stuff is so confounded. Take 10 Arabs in the desert. Divide their number by 2 and you get 2 groups of 5, right. Since "0" is nothing, divide them by nothing and they are not divide, right? So, there are still 10 Arabs, right? English has its characteristic laws that don't make any sense. Mathematics is a language that has characteristic laws that don't make any sense as well. It's the reason that we have flaws in our thinking. With five Arab individuals, one may "make/take" −0 non-existent (think: null) groups of them (indeed, these would already "exist"). Look, -0 is absence of zero. So, what exactly is the amount of non-zero? See my emboldened text above. Wasn't a question. Was English. Non-zero is the set of whatever we were talking about = 10 Arabs.
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seoincorporation
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Merit: 3123
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October 16, 2014, 12:52:49 AM Last edit: November 30, 2014, 09:25:35 PM by seoincorporation |
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Consider these mathematical laws: 1) Any real number, when divided by zero, produces modulus and quotient zero. Example: 0/2 = 02) Any real number multiplied by zero is equal to zero. Therefore, it logically follows, that zero divided by zero is equal to zero. Lets say you have zero apples... and you want to give that apples to 3 persons... how many apples will get each person? cero. that is why 0/3=0
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BADecker
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October 16, 2014, 12:59:57 AM |
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Consider these mathematical laws: 1) Any real number, when divided by zero, produces modulus and quotient zero. Example: 0/2 = 02) Any real number multiplied by zero is equal to zero. Therefore, it logically follows, that zero divided by zero is equal to zero. Lets say you have cero apples... and you want to give that apples to 3 persons... how many apples will get each person? cero. that is why 0/3=0 Now you're mixing flawed math with flawed English.
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nsimmons
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October 16, 2014, 02:28:17 AM |
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Consider these mathematical laws: 1) Any real number, when divided by zero, produces modulus and quotient zero. Example: 0/2 = 02) Any real number multiplied by zero is equal to zero. Therefore, it logically follows, that zero divided by zero is equal to zero. Lets say you have cero apples... and you want to give that apples to 3 persons... how many apples will get each person? cero. that is why 0/3=0 Now you're mixing flawed math with flawed English. I see less equations and more faulty logic. How about you leave the math to people who have studied it and you can go back to the fairy tales?
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BADecker
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Merit: 1382
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October 16, 2014, 02:59:26 AM |
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Consider these mathematical laws: 1) Any real number, when divided by zero, produces modulus and quotient zero. Example: 0/2 = 02) Any real number multiplied by zero is equal to zero. Therefore, it logically follows, that zero divided by zero is equal to zero. Lets say you have cero apples... and you want to give that apples to 3 persons... how many apples will get each person? cero. that is why 0/3=0 Now you're mixing flawed math with flawed English. I see less equations and more faulty logic. How about you leave the math to people who have studied it and you can go back to the fairy tales? See this following: God is all. God is the universe. God is oneness. God is light. God is love. God is consciousness.
God is positivity.
Ego is none. Ego is fear. Ego is death. Ego is doubt. Ego is random.
Ego is negativity.
God believes in everything. Ego believes in nothing.
Everything is everything.
Nothing is nothing.
Everything = ∞
Nothing = 0
Multiply any form of logic times zero, what do you get?
Arithmatic negation is the arithmatic equivalent of logical negation.
Zero ("0") is quantitative nothing.
∴ Negative (read: negated) zero ("−0") is quantitative everything.
I don't have time to prove the obvious using math. It is right there, out in the open, for anyone who wants to look at it.
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Watoshi-Dimobuto
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November 30, 2014, 10:58:53 AM |
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I strongly disagree.
10/10 = 1 5/5 = 1 So, naturally 0/0 = 1
Another proof: 10^2 = 10 * 10 10^1 = 10 10^0 = 10/10 = 1
Similarly, we know that, 0^0 = 1, which is 0/0 = 1
Prove me wrong.
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a fool and his money ...
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December 31, 2014, 01:30:36 PM |
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zero is no real number to begin with. It doesn't occure in the real world.
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activebiz
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December 31, 2014, 03:56:23 PM |
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dividing by 0 will always give a mathematics error. infinity. btw its has few if any applications.
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bornil267645
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December 31, 2014, 07:03:58 PM |
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it's like human beings have two hands, two legs and one penis.
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a fool and his money ...
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December 31, 2014, 07:18:38 PM |
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dividing by 0 will always give a mathematics error. infinity. btw its has few if any applications.
there are no applications because it's not possible. This is one incredible thread, i tell ya ...
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panju1
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January 01, 2015, 10:56:02 AM |
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Similarly, we know that, 0^0 = 1
Nope, that is not correct. That is indeterminate as well.
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miffman
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PGP ID: 78B7B84D
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January 01, 2015, 05:31:33 PM |
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What number times 0 will give you something?
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spazzdla
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January 02, 2015, 05:12:56 AM |
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Division and multiplication are different.
The more you know.
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awesome31312 (OP)
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February 15, 2015, 03:39:27 PM |
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Guys, the solution to this can be summed by Plato's third man argument.
The solution fits in neither undefined nor zero, but the interdeterminate form
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Account recovered 08-12-2019
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Sakarias-Corporation
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February 16, 2015, 03:16:01 PM |
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its fairly easy to divide by 0.
1/0 = ~
Senario. 1 bag of sand divide it by 0. throw it all around. = 1/0
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(Lithium)
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February 16, 2015, 04:00:37 PM |
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Ask Chuck Norris.
He is the only only that can do that
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BADecker
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Merit: 1382
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February 16, 2015, 08:05:01 PM |
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I got an easy one for you...
If you're driving in a canoe and the wheels fall off, how many pieces of pizza can you eat?
Quantum math could answer this. But the answer would be as goofy as any other non-reality.
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BADecker
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February 16, 2015, 08:06:39 PM |
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its fairly easy to divide by 0.
1/0 = ~
Senario. 1 bag of sand divide it by 0. throw it all around. = 1/0
( ∀𝑥 𝑥 ∈ *ℝ ) ⇒ ( *𝑥 = ⅟₀ − 𝑥 )
A population can be divided into equally populous subpopulations ad infinitum (i.e., to an absolute infinity [i.e., an superlatively large hyperreal number]) when so dividing both zero times (i.e., not doing so) and into “subpopulations” of zero (i.e., unpopulated “subpopulations”). Looking at what the Mexican cartels and ISIS are doing these days, the population can be divided into all the people except that one of them has lost his head... a fractional population.
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