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Author Topic: Average block generation time  (Read 18043 times)
da2ce7
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November 07, 2010, 05:27:31 AM
 #1

How does one calculate the average block generation time at any given difficulty factor?

Thanks in advanced.

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November 07, 2010, 01:00:46 PM
 #2

http://www.alloscomp.com/bitcoin/calculator.php

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November 07, 2010, 01:09:18 PM
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Average Time = difficulty * 2^32 * hour / (3600 * hashrate)
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November 08, 2010, 09:55:39 AM
 #4

http://developer.wolframalpha.com/widgets/gallery/view.jsp?id=76444b3132fda0e2aca778051d776f1c

Little gadget that anyone can use... Hope it helps.

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March 09, 2011, 07:34:53 PM
 #5

Average Time = difficulty * 2^32 * hour / (3600 * hashrate)

Average Time (in hours) = difficulty * 2^32 *hour / (3600 * hash per second)
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June 07, 2012, 07:12:25 AM
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Useful, thanks!!

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November 28, 2012, 09:57:11 PM
 #7

Hi, Where does the 2^32 come from?

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November 29, 2012, 12:47:29 AM
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Hi, Where does the 2^32 come from?
The nonce for the block "candidate" is a 32bit integer, meaning it can be anything from 0 to 2^32. While mining, you'll iterate through every single possibility before beginning on a new block "candidate".
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November 30, 2012, 06:30:14 PM
 #9

I didn't know you could create widgets with wolfram, that's really neat. So if 250 th worth of ASICs were released today , it would take about 40h to chomp through 2000 blocks.

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June 26, 2013, 09:06:42 PM
 #10

I have question raised from different topic -
Solo mining, no change in total network hash rate, 20 hours a day for 62 days, then you have what percentage of finding a block??
According to this: https://en.bitcoin.it/wiki/Difficulty
time required to find a block = difficulty * 2^48 / 65535 / hashrate

difficulty = 19339258.272387
hashrate = 7.75 GH/s = 7 750 000 000 hash/s
time required to find a block = 19 339 258.272 387 * 2^48 / 65 535 / 7 750 000 000 = 10 717 774 s

20 hours a day for 62 days equals to 4 464 000 seconds
result is 4 464 000 / 10 717 774 = 41.65%

But I have some concerns:
Actually, result percentage should be bigger. 10717774s is maximal time to check all possible hashes. In reality miner does not check them all, it stops as soon as correct hash was found.
Its like if somebody has number between 1 and 9 in his mind, and you will guess it by trying all numbers 1,2,3,.. sequently. You do not need to make 9 guesses every time. It will be from 1 to 9; 5 guesses in average.
Soo, in this case result percentage should be 2 times bigger - 83.3%.
Am I correct?
I want to understand logic behind this. Can anybody help? Correct result is 41.65% or 83.3%?

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farlack
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June 26, 2013, 09:32:36 PM
 #11

Anyone else notice the block times you will get 2 in 2 minutes, then none for 30 minutes, its really annoying.
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June 26, 2013, 09:33:42 PM
 #12

Average block time = time for last n blocks / n

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June 26, 2013, 09:37:34 PM
 #13

Anyone else notice the block times you will get 2 in 2 minutes, then none for 30 minutes, its really annoying.
Fucking maths, how do they work?

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June 26, 2013, 09:49:53 PM
 #14

Average block time = time for last n blocks / n
True
But question was related to device that probobaly will take months to generate at least one block Smiley
So there is no "time for last n blocks" in this case

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cp1
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June 26, 2013, 10:18:34 PM
 #15

But question was related to device that probobaly will take months to generate at least one block Smiley
So there is no "time for last n blocks" in this case

I didn't realize the thread was from so long ago either.

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November 12, 2013, 12:39:15 AM
 #16

Hi, Where does the 2^32 come from?
The nonce for the block "candidate" is a 32bit integer, meaning it can be anything from 0 to 2^32. While mining, you'll iterate through every single possibility before beginning on a new block "candidate".

Incorrect.

The maximum target* is 0x00000000FFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFF, which has 8 zeros at 4 bits each (each hexadecimal digit has pow(2,4) = 2^4 = 16 possibilities: 0 - 9, A, B, C, D, E, and F). 8 x 4 = 32 bits.

The probability of finding a hash which is 0xFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFF divided by 0x00000000FFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFF = 1/pow(2,32) = 1 / (2^32). Since the difficulty is the maximum target divided by current target, each hash calculated has 1 / (2^32) probability of being the block solution when the difficulty is 1.

This choice of the maximum target for Bitcoin just so happens to match the number of possible values for the block nonce.

* Note the maximum target is rounded down to 0x00000000FFFF0000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000, so all the math presented in this thread is only an approximation.

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December 25, 2013, 10:28:10 PM
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Here a more detailed:
http://bitcoinwisdom.com/litecoin/difficulty

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